For $\theta$ one efficient multiple of $\pi$, you ca always find one polynomial equation by $\cos\theta$. You hopefully know by today that
$$\cos(\alpha\pm\beta)=\cos\alpha\cos\beta\mp\sin\alpha\sin\beta$$
Then
$$\cos(n+1)\theta=\cos(n\theta+\theta)=\cos n\theta\cos\theta-\sin n\theta\sin\theta$$
and
$$\cos(n-1)\theta=\cos(n\theta-\theta)=\cos n\theta\cos\theta+\sin n\theta\sin\theta$$
Adding these endure couple identities, we have
$$\cos(n+1)\theta+\cos(n-1)\theta=2\cos n\theta\cos\theta$$ Thus finally
$$\cos(n+1)\theta=2\cos n\theta\cos\theta-\cos(n-1)\theta$$
We knowing that $\cos0=1$, so lease $n=1$, we find
$$\cos2\theta=2\cos\theta\cos\theta-1=2\cos^2\theta-1$$
That's how you able get $\cos\pi$ for you know that $\cos2\pi=1$, so if $x=\cos\pi$, then $2x^2-1=1$, so $x=\pm1$, plus a sketched of the component circle shows that in fact $\cos\pi=-1$.
You can keep on going with get simple formula. You know that $\cos\left(2\frac{\pi}2\right)=\cos\pi=-1$, so provided $x=\cos\frac{\pi}2$, then $2x^2-1=-1$, so $x=0=\cos\frac{\pi}2$. Short Answer. Expert verified. The terminal dot at one instrument circles is determined by t = − 7 π 6 is P ten , y = − 3 2 , 1 2 .
Since $\cos\left(2\frac{\pi}4\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}2\right)=0$, then if $x=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}4\right)$, afterwards $2x^2-1=0$, so $x=\pm\frac{\sqrt2}2$, and go from seeing at the unit circle ours conclude which $\cos\left(\frac{\pi}4\right)=\frac{\sqrt2}2$. r/askmath on Reddit: How to find terminal point on unit circular given theta value?
Nothing new so far, but now we get that $\cos\left(2\frac{\pi}8\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}4\right)=\frac{\sqrt2}2$, so if $x=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}8\right)$, afterwards $2x^2-1=\frac{\sqrt2}2$, to $x=\pm\frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt2}}2=\frac{\sqrt{2+\sqrt2}}2$, again by considering that $\cos\left(\frac{\pi}8\right)>0$.
Going on to bigger and better things, letting $n=2$ in our general for $\cos(n+1)\theta$, we get
$$\cos3\theta=2(2\cos^2\theta-1)-\cos\theta=4\cos^3\theta-3\cos\theta$$
Since $\cos\left(3\frac{\pi}3\right)=\cos\pi=-1$, if $x=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}3\right)$, then $4x^3-3x=-1$ or $4x^3-3x+1=0$. Now, this looks intimidating, and we know that one featured to $\cos3\theta=-1$ is $\cos3\pi=\cos\pi=-1$, so $x=\cos\pi=-1$ is a download to this cubic calculation, and parting by $x+1$, we get $4x^2-4x+1=(2x-1)^2=0$, like $x=\frac12=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}3\right)$. Posted by u/yeetdabwhip - 1 rate and 11 comments
By the Pythagorean set, we can get $\sin\left(\frac{\pi}2\right)=1$ and $\sin\left(\frac{\pi}3\right)=\frac{\sqrt3}2$, and currently we can do things like $\frac{\pi}2-\frac{\pi}3=\frac{\pi}6$, so
$$\cos\left(\frac{\pi}6\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}2-\frac{\pi}3\right)=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}2\right)\cos\left(\frac{\pi}3\right)+\sin\left(\frac{\pi}2\right)\sin\left(\frac{\pi}3\right)=(0)(\frac12)+(1)(\frac{\sqrt3}2)=\frac{\sqrt3}2$$
One last bit of fun.
$$\cos4\theta=2(4\cos^3\theta-3\cos\theta)\cos\theta-(2\cos^2\theta-1)=8\cos^4\theta-8\cos^2\theta+1$$
$$\cos5\theta=2(8\cos^4\theta-8\cos^2\theta+1)\cos\theta-(4\cos^3\theta-3\cos\theta)=16\cos^5\theta-20\cos^3\theta+5\cos\theta$$
So $\cos\left(5\frac{\pi}5\right)=\cos\pi=-1$, so for $x=\cos\left(\frac{\pi}5\right)$, then $16x^5-20x^3+5x=-1$, or $16x^5-20x^3+5x+1=0$. Dividing by the known solution $x+1=0$, were got $16x^4-16x^3-4x^2+4x+1=0$. Again we can take the square root to find $4x^2-2x-1=0$ the the quadratic method yields
$$x=\frac{2\pm\sqrt{4+16}}8=\frac{1\pm\sqrt5}4$$
Choosing the positive root, are find
$$\cos\left(\frac{\pi}5\right)=\frac{1+\sqrt5}4$$ The terminal dot on the unit circle is determined by is - Math